Loan from wife to husband, before marriage

Would any consideration be given to the fact they''re completely illiquid?

Any "value" they have is meaningless as I can''t sell them. It''s just an accounting figure really.

It''s like saying my two bed house is worth a million but there''s no buyers, so I''ll have to buy the ex''s half.

We bought them together knowing full well it was a long term investment. It doesn''t seem right she gets to bail out early by forcing me to pour more money down the drain. The company is on it''s last legs and I''ll never see any of this money again, and I''ve already lost a fortune on them.

No one can give you a definitive answer.
It''s impossible.It''s actually six of one half a dozen of the other.
A judge may accept her answer that it was a loan made prior to marriage.Solely from her money and to your benefit
The judge may accept your argument that it was a joint investment from joint funds.
The judge may just think well it came into marital assets once married and should be split as of worth at the time of divorce.
She could make her argument.You make yours and he will decide.
IF IT GETS THAT FAR AND IF HE JUST DOESN''T DO THE NORMAL WHICH IS MAKE A DECISION ON THE OVERALL VIEW OF FINANCES AS THEY STAND WITHOUT WORRYING ABOUT ANY OF THE SMALLER INCIDENTAL ARGUMENTS.