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Posted by
New Member

17 Oct 13 #410459 by ago

Topic started by ago

I owned my own property outright for some years with no mortgage. My girlfriend moved in with me 4 years ago, and very stupidly I put her on the mortgage deeds. We have just split and she is saying she is entitled to half of my house! We never married. Can anyone tell me how I stand?

sim5355
Platinum Member

17 Oct 13 #410461 by sim5355

Reply from sim5355

Hi!
If you never married and never had children then no she is not entitled to any of your house.

MrsMathsisfun
Platinum Member

17 Oct 13 #410469 by MrsMathsisfun

Reply from MrsMathsisfun

If she is on the deeds then she might be entitled to a share as legally she owns the house with you.

Fiona
Platinum Member

17 Oct 13 #410473 by Fiona

Reply from Fiona

What are the terms of the deeds? Ownership of property is determined by property law and less the deeds say otherwise it is assumed joint owners each have a 50% interest in the property.

ago
Posted by
New Member

17 Oct 13 #410493 by ago

Reply from ago

She was put on the deeds 4 years ago when we borrowed a small amount against the property

.Charles
Platinum Member

17 Oct 13 #410497 by .Charles

Reply from .Charles

Whoever did your conveyance should have explained the effect of placing your partner on the property title. Did you receive any advice?

Charles

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