Hi Didojane & Phatasphuk,
I believe that in the main you are referring to fairness and equality from a decent and moral standpoint. You raise the issue of income equalisation
“…All I know is dont want to be greedy so surely equal income would mean just that no one better off than the other both exactly the same to me that seems fair but I would like some feed back on this as I really am struggling with what seems fair and reasonable to me may not be to some one else. …”
As you suggest, it is rarely possible to achieve total equality in terms of income. Retirement age differentials usually mean that one party is able to retire before the other, but it depends on the scheme in question.
The following might help in putting things into some sort of perspective.
Pre-divorce one party might have built up a pension entitlement. Presumably the intention is that when that person reaches retirement age, the pension will be drawn and the income enjoyed by both parties. If the pensioner dies either before or after retirement, the other party usually gets a reduced pension for the remainder of their lives.
On divorce, the pension built up through to the date of divorce might be shared between the two parties. If the value of the pension (
CETV) is shared equally between the two parties 50:50, it is as you say most unlikely that each party will receive the same pension income. This is where pension-sharing reports become important, as the aim is often to produce a share that will result in equality of income and actuarial
pension sharing reports can do the relevant calculations. However, the question then arises as to what does equality of income mean.
For example, if we assume that both parties are the same age but the scheme rules mean that one party can retire at 50 whilst the other will have to wait until they are 60, you can only equalise income at the point at which they have both retired. From an actuarial perspective, that is relatively straight forward, but it does mean projecting forward the two pensions several years into the future. So, this gives a potential
pension share required so that both parties are receiving the same pension (from the pension pot built up to the point of divorce) when the second party can retire; in this case at age 60. That is fair in a way, but what about the fact that one party will receive their pension ten years earlier? This requires another set of calculations that effectively adjusts the sharing order to compensate for the fact that one pension is payable for ten years before the other. We call this “capital equalisation” because technically, the result is to equalise the pensions on their post-pension-sharing capital values.
In my view, these final calculations bring things much closer to the pre-divorce position. This is why we have now moved to showing pension shares for both income equalisation and capital equalisation in our pension sharing reports. Whether the parties concerned, their lawyers and the Court consider one basis fairer and more equitable than the other is for others to decide.
Peter.
P.S. I’ll post separately but in the same thread on the subject of future increases and whether they are taken into account.