Situation:
Married 17 years, together 21 years
Two children, 12 and 14 - in principle agree 50/50, in reality they live with me
Live central London
530k’ish - equity in
FMH jointly owned, mortgage outstanding of £170k (already allowed for in equity calc)
180k - equity in wife’s solely owned home in another country, owned before marriage, but some joint contributions throughout marriage (gaps when not rented out, major repairs etc)
£25k wife savings and investments
£80k husband pension
£300k husband stocks (company awarded as employee plan)
Husband, well paid, some 120k + variable bonus
Wife minimal income from part time music teaching, 12k - quit well paid IT role when second child maternity leave finished and decided to pursue music passion instead, but hs struggled to develop it as a viable income stream.
Currently, my wife has stayed in FMR. I rent a 3 bed property for 2,500 per month for the last 18 months. Pay all bills in both houses (gas, c/tax, mortgage, etc), pay wife monthly lump of £600, pay all child related costs (cloths, school lunches, trips, holidays, etc).... And children live with me c.90% of time, only going to their mothers when I must travel for work. Their default is they refuse to go.
Standard of living - we’ve never been too frivolous, we took a holiday once a year or so, we drive an old banger, most of money has simply gone on supporting a four person household in central London on a single income and overpaying our mortgage to build equity.
My understanding is that this will be a needs based financial separation, and income disparity will be biggest challenge for me. I would prefer a
Clean Break and no spousal maintenance.
In some ways, I am not adverse to keeping the FMR and agreeing to something to enable stbx wife to stay in it - as selling it will see us take a hit on selling a “doer upper” cheap for someone else's benefit. Additionally, if we turned that to interest only mortgage, my ex would be able to benefit of having 3 bed house in central London for < £1000 pcm. However, my solicitor advises it makes more sense to sell assets and divide equity, as I would be left with penalties in terms of capital gains tax, stamp duty on my home purchase as second home etc…
We are about to go into
mediation. We have exchanged
form E disclosures etc. My ex is asking for 100% of the house and spousal maintenance and has “needs” of 8k per month, which, is, well, a bargaining position I guess.
My starting point is 50/50 of the assets, including her foreign home in the martial pot, and allowing for her to have say 70% share of the FMH to
offset my pension and stocks… this would give her ideally enough to purchase a 3 bed apartment in current locale essentially mortgage free, see as she would not have borrowing capacity - I suppose that is the goal in the eyes of the law?
Am I way off ball here?