DAMN !!!
I was writing a reply and for some reason what I had written was obliterated at a stroke. I will have to start again.
Blast !!!!
Yes, I can understand why you didn't get a clear reply. This sounds to me pretty specialised and as luck would have it ( from your point of view ) I used to be a specialist in this field. But that was some time ago. Things may have altered since then.
The problem, from your point of view, is not that you are still liable on the mortgage. It is perfectly possible to have no right to occupy a house and still be liable on the mortgage - as a great number of ex husbands on this site will happily confirm. Or, on reflection, perhaps not so happily.
Your difficulty is twofold.
Firstly, you are the joint owner of a house. Now normally being the joint owner of a house entitles you to occupy it. Now in practice it would probably be sensible for you to get a Court order if you ex won't let you back in. But presumably you don't want to live with him or you would not have left.
Secondly, there is the way homelessness is defined. In general terms you are homeless if you have no accommodation which you are entitled to occupy by virtue of
an interest in it ; or
an express or implied licence to occupy.
Now I think you could expect the Council to say you are not homeless, firstly because you are a joint owner of the
marital home and secondly because you are living with your parents by reason of an express or implied licence.
If you transfer your interest to him, you are likely to be ' accused ' ( not quite the right word but you know what I mean ) of intentional homelessness because you had property which you gave away.
The definition of intentional homelessness is made up of three constitutent elements :
1. You made a conscious act or decision ;
2. That this act or decision was the cause of your homelessness ;
3. That, but for the act or decision, it would have been reasonable for you to go on living in the marital home.
I will warn you, you have to tread very carefully here. The reason is that, if my memory serves me correctly, there is something in the Housing Act 1996 which says that if you do anything which is done with the specific purpose of making yourself homeless, the resulting homelessness can be treated as intentional.
So what are your options ?
So let me review where we stand.
You say you are not married. You could, at least in theory, apply for an order for the sale of the property. You might be able to agree with your partner to sell voluntarily. That would, if nothing else, dispose of the mortgage. But it would be wise, I think, to make sure you are not landed with a residual debt.
Another possibility is to apply for an order for the transfer of the property to you, for the benefit of your children.
This, however, is likely to be a realistic option only if you could afford to pay the expenses of running the home. If you couldn't, there would be no point ; there is no point in transferring to you a house you could not afford to run.
I would have thought that, if you can show that you could not afford to run the house anyway, even if it were transferred to you, the risks of intentional homelessness are reduced. This is because, if you can't afford to pay the costs, it can hardly be reasonable for you to go on living there.
It is always open to you to apply to the local authority for ' advice and assistance ' and you have little or nothing to lose by doing this.
May I suggest that you consider a benefits check with the CAB. Could you afford to rent, with the aid of such resources as you have or might acquire, including housing benefit ?
I am going to conclude, for the time being, by saying this. This is a pretty rarifieid field of law and most High Street solicitors would have limited experienceof it.
My experience is anything but limited but I retired many years ago and my knowledge may be out of date.
I would recommend Shelter as your first port of call. If nothing else they have access to up to date legal advice from people who know what they are doing.
LMM