I know it seems like half a dozen of one and six of the other, but the OP is talking about changing the deal whereas her ex-husband has simply not signed it as yet, he might be asking for more, but as the draft consent is there it remains an open offer.
The first deal does not count because it was superceded.
The second deal remains live and the question is should she resile it or not?
We know we are talking about an actual breaking of the deal because the question is very specific. Should I pay him less than agreed or not (based on a future event that has not happened)?
My advice therefore is correct, she needs to think carefully about taking back a firm/open offer that is on the table to which she is pressing for a signature. It is not an unforeseeable event that his income could go down or up or that either party could approach the CSA in a year for a revaluation.
To attempt to adjust the current capital element because there might be a change in circumstances in the future would be seen (in my view) as overzealous to which the other party would have no ability to rebalance from if his income was to rise and the OP chose to have him reassessed.
My advice was and is:
Yes you can walk away from the deal if it is not signed.
No you cannot arbitrarily pay him less than you agreed as a unilateral amendment to the deal because of a future change in circumstances even if foreseen. That is not the deal. If you do that then you have resiled the deal which is in the form of a draft
Consent Order - negotiated.
He could in effect, take it to court and ask to have it enforced with the costs borne by the OP. Likewise the OP could take it to court and ask to have it enforced, with costs awarded against ex-husband.
I completely agree, under no circumstances should money change hands until the agreement is signed and sealed.
The courts don't look favourably on consent orders that have been negotiated being resiled (even if not signed) unless there is a clear case of unfairness in the original terms, there was coercion or an unforseen event has occurred. A redundancy in the current environment would not meet that hurdle (and there is no evidence that he would not keep paying).
The amount in question would be eaten up in legal fees before solicitors would have reached a view. It simply is not worth it.
Sign the deal and be done with it and try to negotiate a short term resolution if he is out of work. Most people would accept people cannot pay what they don't have and give a payment holiday but would hope that the otehr party recognises they should try to catch up if as and when possible.
In this case it would keep the focus on
child maintenance which is more likely to be neutral ground rather than marital assets which is guaranteed to result in animosity and court costs if they can't settle it.