CSA Payments on Capital

Can somebody tell me how this works. I understand assets have to exceed £60000.
My stupid ex thought that when she divorced me that she would just hide all her assets, not have to pay any CM because of her cash in hand earnings and rip me off for 40% of my assets.
After the divorce from hell because of her and her money grabbing solicitor I am about to get my own back.
The CSA have asked for a copy of the Consent Order which states the share of the assets that my ex will get when overseas assets are sold.
Now the trouble is I don't see these assets being sold any time soon because of the economic climate.
So if on paper my ex has assets worth more than £60000 how do the CSA assess the amount of CM that she should pay.
I was quite prepared to forgo all CM in return for her not trying to take me to the cleaners and her still getting a fair share of the assets but on no, she wanted to break me.
So why should she get away with not paying her share for her kids.

Can't remember the exact thresholds but if you have an asset which is producing, or is capable of producing, an income CSA will assume that it is generating an income at something ridiculous like 10%pa and trat that income as assessable.

Sounds like a catch22. If the asset isn't generating an income and if the ex claims not to be working then you are back at the start again

If the assett isn't generating an income then CSA will assume that it is and assess on that amount. Their figures are also ridiculous, something like 8-10% per annum! A lot of people would like to know what they could invest in to get that sort of return!

Assessable income doesn't just include earned income. Income from investments, pension payments etc are included too.