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misspink
Posted by
Senior Member

16 Apr 13 #389374 by misspink

Topic started by misspink

my partner is in the final stages of divorce from his wife and has been asked for a transfer deed. since the house is in his name solely not his wife''s, even though he is giving her the money for her 50/50 share in it, it is not in her name, so surely he doesn''t need a transfer deed does he? thanks in advance for any responses.

confused 101
Elite Member

16 Apr 13 #389417 by confused 101

Reply from confused 101

Who ever will "own" the house needs the deeds to be in their name.

Is this court directed?

Is she living there? Will she remain living there as her home after the divorce? Is she getting the house and 50% of it''s value (which seems very strange!)unless there are other assets that make this the judgement.

dukey
Moderator

16 Apr 13 #389418 by dukey

Reply from dukey

His sole name is on the title deed?

He will keep the house and pay his ex a lump sum?

Assuming the above is correct all they need is a Consent Order, there is no title transfer.

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