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debt

jo.dot
Posted by
Senior Member

14 Sep 12 #355900 by jo.dot

Topic started by jo.dot

hi,
my husband and i split 2 years ago, the debt we incurred throughtout our marriage is mainly in my name. is he liable to pay half this debt, even if its just in my name.
jo.dot

minxy1912
Elite Member

14 Sep 12 #355925 by minxy1912

Reply from minxy1912

think it depends it depends if your keeping the stuff that caused the debt and if you can proove it was for him.x

jo.dot
Posted by
Senior Member

14 Sep 12 #355928 by jo.dot

Reply from jo.dot

The debt was for numerous things. A mortgage payment, rent payment from our business we had were put on credit card. Tv finance (I have the tv), loan for machine for his business, which was sold on. Different things that were for both of us I suppose. The only thing that any of us have to date is the tv, which I have

Thanks

minxy1912
Elite Member

14 Sep 12 #355940 by minxy1912

Reply from minxy1912

run it buy the judge,he will be made to pay, just rem if you want the FHM, then you may have to give him an offer.x

jo.dot
Posted by
Senior Member

14 Sep 12 #355942 by jo.dot

Reply from jo.dot

What''s fhm?

Elphie
Platinum Member

14 Sep 12 #355971 by Elphie

Reply from Elphie

Former marital home

jo.dot
Posted by
Senior Member

15 Sep 12 #356068 by jo.dot

Reply from jo.dot

Oh ok thanks

The FMH was sold. We moved in with ex parents as we were going to build a home and business premises joined. The land that was bought for the. Yield was in the business name. This is also been sold.
So we sold our house to enable us to build. Money was kind of squandered (debt, loans and new car) and land was sold. leaving us without a home and ex walks.

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